UPSC NDA & NA (National Defence Academy) Exam Pattern 2026
The full UPSC NDA & NA (National Defence Academy) exam pattern for 2026 — 3 stages, with the sections, question count, marks, duration and negative marking for each, as set by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). Then take a free UPSC NDA & NA (National Defence Academy) mock in the real pattern below.
Paper I — Mathematics (Written Stage 1)
- Mode
- Offline OMR-based, pen-and-paper at UPSC-designated centres
- Sections
- Single section — Mathematics (NCERT Class 11 + 12 syllabus)
- Questions
- 120 objective questions (MCQ)
- Marks
- 300 (each correct answer = 2.5 marks)
- Duration
- 2 hours 30 minutes (150 minutes)
- Negative marking
- 0.83 marks deducted per wrong answer (one-third of 2.5 marks)
Conducted in the morning session. Mathematics weight is heavy — Paper I alone is one-third of the total written marks and demands strict accuracy given the negative-marking arithmetic. Skip-discipline matters: marking 100/120 with 90% accuracy beats marking 120/120 with 75% accuracy.
Paper II — General Ability Test / GAT (Written Stage 1)
- Mode
- Offline OMR-based, pen-and-paper at UPSC-designated centres
- Sections
- Section A — English (50 questions, 200 marks) · Section B — General Knowledge (100 questions, 400 marks). GK is further subdivided across Physics, Chemistry, General Science (Biology), History & Freedom Movement, Geography, and Current Events.
- Questions
- 150 objective questions (MCQ) — English 50 + GK 100
- Marks
- 600 (each correct answer = 4 marks)
- Duration
- 2 hours 30 minutes (150 minutes)
- Negative marking
- 1.33 marks deducted per wrong answer (one-third of 4 marks)
Conducted in the afternoon session of the same day as Paper I. Two-thirds of the total written marks (600 of 900) come from this single paper — and a single wrong answer here costs 1.33 marks, the highest per-question penalty in any defence written exam. NDA's GAT GK section is heavily science-weighted (Physics + Chemistry + Biology together account for roughly 50% of GK marks) versus only around 15% in CDS GK — a direct consequence of the Class 12 Science background expected from Air Force / Navy / 10+2 cadet candidates.
Stage 2 — SSB Interview (Services Selection Board)
- Mode
- 5-day in-person procedure at one of the SSB centres (Bhopal, Bangalore, Allahabad, Kapurthala, Coimbatore, Varanasi, Visakhapatnam etc.)
- Sections
- Day 1 — Screening: Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) verbal + non-verbal tests, followed by Picture Perception & Description Test (PP&DT) and group discussion on the picture. Day 2 — Psychological tests: Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), Word Association Test (WAT), Situation Reaction Test (SRT), Self Description Test (SD). Days 2-4 — Group Testing Officer (GTO) tasks: Group Discussion, Group Planning Exercise, Progressive Group Task, Half Group Task, Individual Obstacles, Command Task, Snake Race, Lecturette, Final Group Task. Throughout — Personal Interview with the Interviewing Officer. Day 5 — Conference (full board review and recommendation).
- Questions
- Not applicable — multi-format assessment
- Marks
- 900 (equal weight as the entire written examination)
- Duration
- 5 days at the SSB centre (screened-out candidates exit on Day 1 evening)
- Negative marking
- Not applicable
Final merit out of 1800 marks combines Written (900) + SSB (900) on equal footing. Air Force candidates additionally undergo the Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) / Pilot Aptitude Battery Test (PABT) — a one-time test; failing PABT permanently bars Air Force selection in future attempts as well. All recommended candidates clear a thorough medical examination at Military Hospitals before joining.
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